The Scandal of Christianity, Myth or Truth ? Part VI

• JR Isaiah only refers to Israel as the servant in the 4 servant songs, never "David" or anything signifying the exclusivity of the individual of Messiah.
  
  So you have a choice to make. You either accept that the servant refers to Israel (as the Tanach states) or you make up your own eisegetical understanding of the text.
  
  Hashem promised a righteous remnant of Israel. It is the role of the remnant to bring back the rest of Israel to righteousness. Then the nation of Israel will serve as a "light unto the nations" as G-d's servant. This is what Isaiah 49:3-6 is saying.
  
  Isaiah 53 refers to at the end of days when Israel is restored to righteousness through the remnant and the gentiles realize that their worship of jesus was idolatrous and foolish.
  
  Just read Jeremiah 16:19 and Zechariah 8:23...

  
  
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  JR Also, how has your belief in jesus stopped you from sinning any less than the time before you believed in him? You still sin don't you?
  
  It's a double standard for you to demand tangible proof that Israel was "pierced for your transgressions" when your jesus didn't tangibly do away with your sins either...
  
  Same with Hashem being "pleased" to "bruise jesus." If you believe that jesus was a "god" then your god was pleased to bruise himself?!
  
  If you think my position is wacky, just look in a mirror!

  
  
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  JM Don, it does not say he was pierced for my transgressions. It says because of our transgressions because of our iniquity. This is the gentile kings of the world admitting that Israel was bruised because of their (the Gentiles) iniquities. The Christian Bible purposely mistranslates this verse.

  
  
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  Don Tan Jacob, Again, chapter 1 sets the tone 'goy choteh' Israel.
  
  5. But he was pained because of our transgressions, crushed because of our iniquities; the chastisement of our welfare was upon him, and with his wound we were healed ~ Isaiah 53 (Tanakh)
  
  How do you know 'our' refers to Gentile nations. Did your Rabbi tell you that, or did you come to that conclusion yourself.....
  
  Which gentile nation is admitting that ? You cannot tell me you need an explicit explanation for the Messiah ,and give me an implicit explanation that 'our' refers to Gentile nations. I don't buy that explanation. After all, from what i have read or come to discover, Yeshua did not, himself receive a fair trial.....
  
  Jason, I'm not making up my own exegesis. I'm simply reading the text literally. I don't buy the explanation.... 'end of days when Israel is restored to righteousness through the remnant and the gentiles realize that their worship of jesus was idolatrous and foolish. ' Where did you pull that rabbits foot out off ?
  
  Did Christianity mistranslate Isaiah ?
  
  Rabbi Moses Maimonides: (1135-1204) "What is the manner of Messiah's advent....there shall rise up one of whom none have known before, and signs and wonders which they shall see performed by him will be the proofs of his true origin; for the Almighty, where he declares to us his mind upon this matter, says, `Behold a man whose name is the Branch, and he shall branch forth out of his place' (Zech. 6:12). And Isaiah speaks similarly of the time when he shall appear, without father or mother or family being known, He came up as a sucker before him, and as a root out of dry earth, etc....in the words of Isaiah, when describing the manner in which kings will hearken to him, At him kings will shut their mouth; for that which had not been told them have they seen, and that which they had not heard they have perceived." (From the Letter to the South (Yemen), quoted in The Fifty-third Chapter of Isaiah According to the Jewish Interpreters, Ktav Publishing House, 1969, Volume 2, pages 374-5)
  
  or was it re-interpreted by modern rabbinical scholars to mean something else..... I'm not the one that's trying to change its interpretation.....