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Monday, 1 September 2014

The Jewish Messiah Part II

  • MB 
     Don,

    "Yeshua's pedigree, I agree, is disputed. No need to argue back and forth
    about that topic. It's been, being, and continues to be debated."

    G-d disagrees. The Torah and Tanach already indicated that.

    We don't do arguing, the fact is the fact and the Torah and Tanach clearly 
    indicated the Messiah must be from the line of King David. This is called 
    fact. NT comes in later time which tried to wipe away and indicating 
    something else is totally dangerous.

    Even the New Testament tried to link to David from one genealogy to the 
    other, with so many contradictions,errors etc in the NT itself - that book is 
    totally false. From the 4 gospels, on one book it says jesus was from "david" 
    and the other not.

    No matter how, Christianity proclaimed that jesus was born of a holy spirit - 
    this automatically disqualified to be the messiah no matter whom the genealogy
     is.

    This is not a long debate - this is the fact.

    By the way, jesus which messianic loves to calling him yeshua. Do you know 
    what yeshua mean? And do you know - historically - how many people 
    possessed this very same name? yeshua is a very common name. There is the 
    closest person (in term of time toward christinity jesus, and in term of "miracles" 
    or magical performance that performed from that person before jesus 
    was born)  in the Talmud, his name is also yeshua, and his full name is yeshua 
    ben pentera. Do you know who he was?

    He was a sorcerer with 5 disciples. According to the laws, sorcerer must put to 
    death, and yeshua ben pentera was one of them together with his 5 disciples. 
    He is able to performed quiet similar miracles jesus is able to.

    In reality, no one even really know did Christianity jesus ever exist. The Rome 
    tried to cherry pick and show proof text and Talmud link to create a book called 
    new testament. It should 
    MB "Secondly, the nature of the Messiah. I said, is he a mere man ? If he is the 
    'Suffering Messiah' in Isaiah 53""

    Isa 53 is not about jesus.Isa 53 is Israel, is a national revelation. It is a poetic 
    song that link with previous chapter etc Isa 52, 51 etc etc. Missionary only pick 
    Isa 53 to match fit as jesus while simply ignoring the 4 poetic songs that link 
    together. This is yet again another cherry pick and plug.

    Jesus is not the only person in the history raised the dead.

    Was Jesus resurrected, was Jesus the only people who raise the dead?

    Christianity can't even prove Jesus ever lived -- let alone that he came back 
    to life! The only source for that story is the Christian bible and it gives 
    conflicting stories (who, for example, found the body missing?).

    Even if Jesus did die and rise -- so what? How about Ezekiel and the Valley of 
    Dry Bones? Ezekiel brought MANY back to life. Jesus could only bring himself 
    back? The whole big to do about the resurrection is "much ado about nothing." 
    The messiah is supposed to resurrect ALL the righteous -- not die, undie 
    (and so where is the "sacrifice" in that?) and then disappear. Smells like 10 day 
    old fish to me.

    The people resurrected in the Valley of Dry Bones were just brought back to life. 
    They lived and then they died. . . There is only ONE G-d and He is not human.

    Ezekiel 37:7 ". . .there arose a noise when I (Ezekiel) prophesied, and behold a 
    commotion, and the bones came together, bone to its bone! 8. And I looked, and 
    lo! sinews were upon them, and flesh came upon them, and skin covered them 
    from above, but there was still no spirit in them. 9. Then He said to me, "Prophesy 
    to the spirit, prophesy, O son of man, and say to the spirit, 'So says the L-rd G-d: 
    From four sides come, O spirit, and breathe into these slain ones that they may
     live.' 10. And I prophesied as He had commanded me, and the spirit came into 
    them, and they lived and stood on their feet, a very great army, exceedingly so. . ."

  • Don Tan MB, I beg to differ, MDE and You laid the foundation, we are to read the
     Bible as literal.

    The author did not have to use the term, servant, his, a man i.e singular pronouns, 
    he could have used terms like SHEMA ISRAEL (O' ISRAEL) which is often 
    used in the plural.

    As far as, i see it, it is describing someone. You cannot arrive at an answer and work back-words. You should see if it is plausible and work from there.....

    I asked if HaShem allows false prophets to raise the dead, Yes or No ?

    There are more accounts of Yeshua's Historicity, if you want corroboration
    from non-jewish text. Roman, Greek and Jewish accounts. Tacitus, Plyny the Younger, Josephus....

    Other than the Exodus account which was corroborated by the Ipuwer Papyrus ,and
     the Shasu of Yahweh Hieroglyphics . Hebrew texts are not corroborated by 
    non-jewish texts, but i accept the Tanakh as a whole, as Divine.

    If you accept Ezekiel 37 as literal than you should also accept what is said
    in Isaiah 52 ~ 53 as literal. It is talking about someone. You can dispute who it is talking about.....

1 comment:

  1. G-d is not a man, but to redeem us He became a man.

    What about Isaiah 9:6




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