The Jewish Messiah III

MB The key to deciphering any biblical text is to view it in context. Isaiah 53

 is the fourth of the four “Servant Songs.” (The others are found in Isa 

chapters 42, 49 and 50.)

Though the “servant” in Isaiah 53 is not openly identified – these verses merely 

refer to “My servant” (52:13, 53:11) – the “servant” in each of the previous 

Servant Songs is plainly and repeatedly identified as the Jewish nation. Beginning

 with chapter 41, the equating of G-d Servant with the nation of Israel is made nine

 times by the prophet Isaiah, and no one other than Israel is identified as the “servant”:

-“You are My servant, O Israel” (41:8)
-“You are My servant, Israel” (49:3)
-see also Isaiah 44:1, 44:2, 44:21, 45:4, 48:20

The Bible is filled with other references to the Jewish people as G-d “servant”; see 

Jeremiah 30:10, 46:27-28; Psalms 136:22. There is no reason that the “servant” in 

Isaiah 53 would suddenly switch and refer to someone (etc:jesus) other than the 

Jewish people.

One obvious question that needs to be addressed: How can the “Suffering Servant,” 

which the verses refer to grammatically in the singular, be equated with the entire 

Jewish nation?

This question evaporates when we discover that throughout the Bible, the Jewish 

people are consistently referred to as a singular entity, using the singular pronoun. 

For example, when God speaks to the entire Jewish nation at Mount Sinai, all of 

the Ten Commandments are written as if speaking to an individual (Exodus 20:1-14).

This is because the Jewish people are one unit, bound together with a shared 

 national destiny (see Exodus 4:22, Deuteronomy chapter 32). This singular reference

 is even more common in biblical verses referring to the Messianic era, when the 

Jewish people will be fully united under the banner of God (see Hosea 14:6-7, 

Jeremiah 50:19).

As we will see, for numerous reasons this chapter cannot be referring to Jesus. Even 

in the Christian scriptures, the disciples did not consider the Suffering Servant as 

referring to Jesus (see Matthew 16:21-22, Mark 9:31-32, Luke 9:44-45).

So how did the Suffering Servant come to be associated with Jesus? The intention is 

not to denigrate another religion, but rather to understand the true meaning of the 

Divine word.

MB Jesus did not fulfill this:

Isa 53:10 "G-d desired to oppress him and He afflicted him. If his soul would acknowledge

 guilt, he would see offspring and live long days, and G-d purpose would succeed in his hand."

This verse emphasizes that the Servant is to be rewarded with long life and many children. This verse could not possibly refer to Jesus who, according to the New Testament, died young and childless. (Furthermore, if Jesus was alleged to be the immortal Son of God, it is absurd to apply the concept of “living long days.”)

Although missionaries may claim that the “offspring” refers to spiritual descendants, this is based on a distortion and mistranslation. In this verse, the Hebrew word for "offspring" (zera - ע רֶז) always refers to physical descendants (see Genesis 12:7, 15:2-4, 15:13, 46:6; Exodus 28:43). A different word, banim (םינב), generally translated as "sons," is used to refer to spiritual descendants (see Deut. 14:1).

• MDE Don you seem to have assumed that JC qualified as the Jewish Messiah. Have you ever asked really asked if he did? There is a simple thing to end the debate. A simple requirement is that the Jewish messiah be from the tribe of Judah. The human daddy carries the tribe DNA. According to nt he didn't have a human daddy that was a direct descendant of King David. Not the Jewish messiah!
  The Messiah must be from the Tribe of Judah and a Descendant of King David AND King Solomon
  
  The Messiah must be a member of the tribe of Judah (Genesis 49:10) and a direct descendant of King David & King Solomon (2 Samuel 7:12-14; 1 Chronicles 22:9-10). Genealogy in the Bible is only passed down from father to son (Numbers 1:1-18).
  There is no evidence that Jesus really had this pedigree, and the Christian Bible actually claims that he did not have a "birth-father" from the tribe of Judah descending from King David and King Solomon (Matt. 1:18-20).

  
  
• MDE Don you are using a bible that is NOT from the the G-d of the Jews! You are believing an idiology that is a lie. The Jewish messiah will be just a man! Not a god! Think of it this way....you are using a book that is a lie. You have been taught to read between the lines of that book and imagine a god that has nothing to do with the Great I Am. Then you flip it around and try and question why we can't see your fantasy. If you want truth start with the TRUTH. JC didn't do a single thing the Jewish messiah will do. He didn't have the pedigree or do any action that would be required!!! Chrsitianity is the opposite of the Great I AM
  

  
  

  

  
  
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  Don Tan MB, Do you expect me to believe that the Jewish Nation 'he' was pierced for the rebellion of the Jewish Nation while 'he' had done no wrong ? 53:8~9 Read it again, i think it talks about a Moshiach that HaShem allowed to be bruised
  
  MDE, i never assumed that Yeshua qualified to be the Jewish Messiah. I asked what was the nature of the Messiah. Was he a mere
  man. If Isaiah 53 calls the Messiah the 'Arm of the Lord' He would be
  more than a man. If HaShem decides that Yeshua is more than a man
  i.e. a reflection of himself, than it's not sorcery. I asked can a false prophet raise the dead ? Yes or No. Are there any examples of such ?