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Tuesday, 23 September 2014

The Scandal of Christianity, Myth or Truth ? Part I


Preface

Continuing with the narrative that the gospel is a myth. My acquaintance MB
purports that Christianity is a myth. Here, he provides a compelling narrative
to support his paradigm




  • MB make the lie big - jesus is god

    make it simple - you believe him = you are save


    keep saying it - attend weekly church , don't miss any and don't be late. 
    Attend small groups. eventually they will believe it - here you go, mission 
    accomplished.

  • Don Tan Really ? Where did you read that ?

    "Not everyone who calls out to me, 'Lord! Lord!' will enter the Kingdom 
    of Heaven. Only those who actually do the will of my Father in heaven will 
     enter. ~ Matthew 7:21

    When HaShem offers a gift he expects you to receive it with an open heart, 
    not use it as a fire insurance. Do you really understand the huge price Yeshua
    paid at the Cross for the Remission of Sins ...... ?

  • MB This "gift" is very dangerous and very demonic. Jesus never paid at the 
    cross for the remission of sins. This is assumption by Christianity. G-d 
    prohibited human sacrificial, and human sacrificial is barbaric. When 
    Christianity claimed that this is the remission, they are assuming and misused
    of the text. Torah also clearly stated that drinking of blood is prohibited because
    it contains life force. Those who practice sorcerer by using blood should be cut 
    off from it.Etc: Jesus in Matthew instructed their disciples to drink his blood and
    eat his meat as remembrance of him before crucifixion. This is cult like. If jesus 
    really know the Torah he would not have done that.

    Many conventional sorcerers love to used blood to drag/force power in the 
    spiritual realms - this included the Roman ritual of exorcism by using jesus 
    blood (metaphorical, etc: they used grape wine) to "cast" away demon. This
    also included the Tao talisman where they used chicken blood to drawn onto
     the yellow paper (see this:http://taoist-sorcery.blogspot.com/.../taoist-fox-goddess...)

    When Christianity drink blood (etc: representable, red grape wine for example) 
    on the monthly communion in remembrance of him (idol), and eat his meat 
    (etc: bisket) - this is cult like.

    According to Tanach, sin remission or sacrifice offering must redeem prior to
     sacrifice, not after. Even Christianity think that a man (etc:jesus) is qualify for 
    sin cleansing, that is only prior, not after. So, those who accept jesus for 2000 
    years after his death, their sins never been cleansed. Too bad.

    On top of that, the Tanach is clear that a man cannot die for another man sin. 
    See Psalm 49:7 "No one can redeem the life of another or give to God a 
    ransomfor them."

  • Don Tan Firstly, Yeshua used wine and bread as a metaphor for his blood and 
    body. This is in remembrance of his crucifixion. He did not ask to be sacrificed. 
    The difference is, he was put to death , for sorcery by the Rabbinical Authority, 
    and for being an instigator against Caesar. A crime he did not commit.

    I said, Messiah is not a mere man (Isaiah 53). You disagree. i keep reading the 
    context of Isaiah over and over. I don't see anything else.

    14. Therefore, the Lord, of His own, shall give you a sign; behold, the young 

    woman is with child, and she shall bear a son, and she shall call his name 
    Immanuel. ~ Isaiah 7

    יד. לָכֵן יִתֵּן אֲדֹנָי הוּא לָכֶם אוֹת הִנֵּה הָעַלְמָה הָרָה וְיֹלֶדֶת בֵּן וְקָרָאת שְׁמוֹ עִמָּנוּ אֵל:

    HaAlma young woman i.e. virgin (disputed by scholars). Even my Hebrew 

    University Prof. flip flops over the term Elohim. Elohim is a plural term for 
    HaShem.

    Isaiah is definitely not talking about a servant nation, he nation and definitely 

    not in the plural in Isaiah 7 verse 14

    Certainly, no Man can die for another Man's Sin. Psalm 49:7. Yeshua 

    however is not a mere man. If Elisha and Elijah raised the dead. I asked if
    Yeshua a sorcerer, who raise the dead multiple times, is a false prophet.
    If so, does HaShem allow false prophets to raise the dead ?

    Since you like metaphors. I will give you one

    Look, this is not the IRS (HaShems Court). Whereby, when there is a dispute, 

    in the interpretation of the law. The interpretation of the governments tax 
    official (Rabbinical Authority) takes precedent over, the defense's tax lawyer
     (Christian Interpretation). This is, one on one, with HaShem on the Day of 
    Judgement. I'm not worried, that i'm wrong. I've already received my revelation
    ~ Acts 2:17

  • Don Tan I will pour out my Spirit on all flesh: and your sons and daughters will 
    prophesy, your old men will dream dreams and your bochrim will see visions":
    ~ Yoel 3:1

Monday, 1 September 2014

The Jewish Messiah III


MB The key to deciphering any biblical text is to view it in context. Isaiah 53
 is the fourth of the four “Servant Songs.” (The others are found in Isa 
chapters 42, 49 and 50.)

Though the “servant” in Isaiah 53 is not openly identified – these verses merely 
refer to “My servant” (52:13, 53:11) – the “servant” in each of the previous 
Servant Songs is plainly and repeatedly identified as the Jewish nation. Beginning
 with chapter 41, the equating of G-d Servant with the nation of Israel is made nine
 times by the prophet Isaiah, and no one other than Israel is identified as the “servant”:

-“You are My servant, O Israel” (41:8)
-“You are My servant, Israel” (49:3)
-see also Isaiah 44:1, 44:2, 44:21, 45:4, 48:20

The Bible is filled with other references to the Jewish people as G-d “servant”; see 
Jeremiah 30:10, 46:27-28; Psalms 136:22. There is no reason that the “servant” in 
Isaiah 53 would suddenly switch and refer to someone (etc:jesus) other than the 
Jewish people.

One obvious question that needs to be addressed: How can the “Suffering Servant,” 
which the verses refer to grammatically in the singular, be equated with the entire 
Jewish nation?

This question evaporates when we discover that throughout the Bible, the Jewish 
people are consistently referred to as a singular entity, using the singular pronoun. 
For example, when God speaks to the entire Jewish nation at Mount Sinai, all of 
the Ten Commandments are written as if speaking to an individual (Exodus 20:1-14).

This is because the Jewish people are one unit, bound together with a shared 
 national destiny (see Exodus 4:22, Deuteronomy chapter 32). This singular reference
 is even more common in biblical verses referring to the Messianic era, when the 
Jewish people will be fully united under the banner of God (see Hosea 14:6-7, 
Jeremiah 50:19).

As we will see, for numerous reasons this chapter cannot be referring to Jesus. Even 
in the Christian scriptures, the disciples did not consider the Suffering Servant as 
referring to Jesus (see Matthew 16:21-22, Mark 9:31-32, Luke 9:44-45).

So how did the Suffering Servant come to be associated with Jesus? The intention is 
not to denigrate another religion, but rather to understand the true meaning of the 
Divine word.


MB Jesus did not fulfill this:

Isa 53:10 "G-d desired to oppress him and He afflicted him. If his soul would acknowledge
 guilt, he would see offspring and live long days, and G-d purpose would succeed in his hand."

This verse emphasizes that the Servant is to be rewarded with long life and many children. This verse could not possibly refer to Jesus who, according to the New Testament, died young and childless. (Furthermore, if Jesus was alleged to be the immortal Son of God, it is absurd to apply the concept of “living long days.”)

Although missionaries may claim that the “offspring” refers to spiritual descendants, this is based on a distortion and mistranslation. In this verse, the Hebrew word for "offspring" (zera - ע רֶז) always refers to physical descendants (see Genesis 12:7, 15:2-4, 15:13, 46:6; Exodus 28:43). A different word, banim (םינב), generally translated as "sons," is used to refer to spiritual descendants (see Deut. 14:1).

  • MDE Don you seem to have assumed that JC qualified as the Jewish Messiah. Have you ever asked really asked if he did? There is a simple thing to end the debate. A simple requirement is that the Jewish messiah be from the tribe of Judah. The human daddy carries the tribe DNA. According to nt he didn't have a human daddy that was a direct descendant of King David. Not the Jewish messiah!
    The Messiah must be from the Tribe of Judah and a Descendant of King David AND King Solomon

    The Messiah must be a member of the tribe of Judah (Genesis 49:10) and a direct descendant of King David & King Solomon (2 Samuel 7:12-14; 1 Chronicles 22:9-10). Genealogy in the Bible is only passed down from father to son (Numbers 1:1-18).
    There is no evidence that Jesus really had this pedigree, and the Christian Bible actually claims that he did not have a "birth-father" from the tribe of Judah descending from King David and King Solomon (Matt. 1:18-20).

  • MDE Don you are using a bible that is NOT from the the G-d of the Jews! You are believing an idiology that is a lie. The Jewish messiah will be just a man! Not a god! Think of it this way....you are using a book that is a lie. You have been taught to read between the lines of that book and imagine a god that has nothing to do with the Great I Am. Then you flip it around and try and question why we can't see your fantasy. If you want truth start with the TRUTH. JC didn't do a single thing the Jewish messiah will do. He didn't have the pedigree or do any action that would be required!!! Chrsitianity is the opposite of the Great I AM

  • Don Tan MB, Do you expect me to believe that the Jewish Nation 'he' was pierced for the rebellion of the Jewish Nation while 'he' had done no wrong ? 53:8~9 Read it again, i think it talks about a Moshiach that HaShem allowed to be bruised

    MDE, i never assumed that Yeshua qualified to be the Jewish Messiah. I asked what was the nature of the Messiah. Was he a mere
    man. If Isaiah 53 calls the Messiah the 'Arm of the Lord' He would be
    more than a man. If HaShem decides that Yeshua is more than a man
    i.e. a reflection of himself, than it's not sorcery. I asked can a false prophet raise the dead ? Yes or No. Are there any examples of such ?

The Jewish Messiah Part II

  • MB 
     Don,

    "Yeshua's pedigree, I agree, is disputed. No need to argue back and forth
    about that topic. It's been, being, and continues to be debated."

    G-d disagrees. The Torah and Tanach already indicated that.

    We don't do arguing, the fact is the fact and the Torah and Tanach clearly 
    indicated the Messiah must be from the line of King David. This is called 
    fact. NT comes in later time which tried to wipe away and indicating 
    something else is totally dangerous.

    Even the New Testament tried to link to David from one genealogy to the 
    other, with so many contradictions,errors etc in the NT itself - that book is 
    totally false. From the 4 gospels, on one book it says jesus was from "david" 
    and the other not.

    No matter how, Christianity proclaimed that jesus was born of a holy spirit - 
    this automatically disqualified to be the messiah no matter whom the genealogy
     is.

    This is not a long debate - this is the fact.

    By the way, jesus which messianic loves to calling him yeshua. Do you know 
    what yeshua mean? And do you know - historically - how many people 
    possessed this very same name? yeshua is a very common name. There is the 
    closest person (in term of time toward christinity jesus, and in term of "miracles" 
    or magical performance that performed from that person before jesus 
    was born)  in the Talmud, his name is also yeshua, and his full name is yeshua 
    ben pentera. Do you know who he was?

    He was a sorcerer with 5 disciples. According to the laws, sorcerer must put to 
    death, and yeshua ben pentera was one of them together with his 5 disciples. 
    He is able to performed quiet similar miracles jesus is able to.

    In reality, no one even really know did Christianity jesus ever exist. The Rome 
    tried to cherry pick and show proof text and Talmud link to create a book called 
    new testament. It should 
    MB "Secondly, the nature of the Messiah. I said, is he a mere man ? If he is the 
    'Suffering Messiah' in Isaiah 53""

    Isa 53 is not about jesus.Isa 53 is Israel, is a national revelation. It is a poetic 
    song that link with previous chapter etc Isa 52, 51 etc etc. Missionary only pick 
    Isa 53 to match fit as jesus while simply ignoring the 4 poetic songs that link 
    together. This is yet again another cherry pick and plug.

    Jesus is not the only person in the history raised the dead.

    Was Jesus resurrected, was Jesus the only people who raise the dead?

    Christianity can't even prove Jesus ever lived -- let alone that he came back 
    to life! The only source for that story is the Christian bible and it gives 
    conflicting stories (who, for example, found the body missing?).

    Even if Jesus did die and rise -- so what? How about Ezekiel and the Valley of 
    Dry Bones? Ezekiel brought MANY back to life. Jesus could only bring himself 
    back? The whole big to do about the resurrection is "much ado about nothing." 
    The messiah is supposed to resurrect ALL the righteous -- not die, undie 
    (and so where is the "sacrifice" in that?) and then disappear. Smells like 10 day 
    old fish to me.

    The people resurrected in the Valley of Dry Bones were just brought back to life. 
    They lived and then they died. . . There is only ONE G-d and He is not human.

    Ezekiel 37:7 ". . .there arose a noise when I (Ezekiel) prophesied, and behold a 
    commotion, and the bones came together, bone to its bone! 8. And I looked, and 
    lo! sinews were upon them, and flesh came upon them, and skin covered them 
    from above, but there was still no spirit in them. 9. Then He said to me, "Prophesy 
    to the spirit, prophesy, O son of man, and say to the spirit, 'So says the L-rd G-d: 
    From four sides come, O spirit, and breathe into these slain ones that they may
     live.' 10. And I prophesied as He had commanded me, and the spirit came into 
    them, and they lived and stood on their feet, a very great army, exceedingly so. . ."

  • Don Tan MB, I beg to differ, MDE and You laid the foundation, we are to read the
     Bible as literal.

    The author did not have to use the term, servant, his, a man i.e singular pronouns, 
    he could have used terms like SHEMA ISRAEL (O' ISRAEL) which is often 
    used in the plural.

    As far as, i see it, it is describing someone. You cannot arrive at an answer and work back-words. You should see if it is plausible and work from there.....

    I asked if HaShem allows false prophets to raise the dead, Yes or No ?

    There are more accounts of Yeshua's Historicity, if you want corroboration
    from non-jewish text. Roman, Greek and Jewish accounts. Tacitus, Plyny the Younger, Josephus....

    Other than the Exodus account which was corroborated by the Ipuwer Papyrus ,and
     the Shasu of Yahweh Hieroglyphics . Hebrew texts are not corroborated by 
    non-jewish texts, but i accept the Tanakh as a whole, as Divine.

    If you accept Ezekiel 37 as literal than you should also accept what is said
    in Isaiah 52 ~ 53 as literal. It is talking about someone. You can dispute who it is talking about.....